RES exam question on Financing: Mr Lim sells his private condominium for $1,500,000
Mr Lim sells his private condominium for $1,500,000. The outstanding mortgage balance is $700,000 and the CPF principal plus accrued interest to be refunded is $250,000. Consider these statements: (i) After discharging the mortgage and CPF refund, Mr Lim receives net cash proceeds of $550,000. (ii) If the mortgage balance plus CPF refund exceed the sale proceeds, Mr Lim must personally top up the shortfall in cash before the sale can proceed. (iii) The $250,000 CPF refund is credited to Mr Lim's CPF Ordinary Account where it continues earning CPF interest. (iv) In a genuine arm's-length market-value sale, if net proceeds are insufficient to cover all CPF withdrawals and accrued interest, CPF Board will generally allow the outstanding CPF refund shortfall to remain unpaid without requiring a cash top-up. Which statements are correct?
- A(i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
- B(i), (iii) and (iv) only
- C(ii), (iii) and (iv) only
- D(i), (ii) and (iii) only
Show answer & explanation
Answer
B. (i), (iii) and (iv) only
Explanation
(i) CORRECT — $1,500,000 − $700,000 − $250,000 = $550,000 net to seller (ignoring transaction costs for simplicity). (iii) CORRECT — CPF moneys refunded on property sale are credited to the CPF Ordinary Account (principal + accrued interest at OA rate), where they continue earning the OA interest rate. The CPF Board recognises that property prices may fall below the amount withdrawn; forcing a cash top-up in a bona fide market sale would be inequitable. (iv) CORRECT — this correctly states the CPF Board's shortfall waiver policy for genuine market-value sales.
Why the other options are wrong
- (ii) INCORRECT — in a genuine arm's-length market-value sale, CPF Board policy does NOT require Mr Lim to top up any shortfall from personal cash.
Study the concept behind this question: Property Financing in Singapore: LTV, TDSR & MSR
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